I have a question and I admit there is no real basis for the assumption I'm about to make.

I took out a copy of Goins' from the library and as I go through ebay and even through these forums, I see the variety of razor manufacturers and I check the brand to get an idea of when the razor was made.

Sometimes I'll find that the manufacturer was only in business for a few years, and occasionally just 1 year.; I started to wonder why. Obviously there was a lot of competition in the early to mid 1900s, especially in Sheffield and Germany but is there any chance only being in business for 1, 2, or 3 years is indicative of the product being inferior? (obviously I don't mean in all cases)