Quote Originally Posted by rickw
The phrase "the right of the people , shall not be infringed" appears in some form maybe four times in the first ten amendments of the Constitution. Why is it that when it comes to the second amendment, it suddenly doesn't mean "the people"?
It does, but why do you ignore the first part of the amendment where it's associated with maintainng a militia? You can't simply pretend it's not there, and that accountsfor the different treatment. If te amendment didn't include that language, I might agree with you.