Quote Originally Posted by onimaru55 View Post
So British & American made razors, to name a couple, have got it all wrong or are there some "texts" from Wade & Butcher or other makers who make similar claims ?

If so please enlighten us. If not then I think it's a marketing ploy , like "resting" a razor for 24-48 hours.
No, the German textbooks are rather clear that Sheffield, England first adopted the process.

Are you stating that if you cannot find easily viewed in PDF form for English readers historical books from Sheffield and Victorian American production, that your conclusion is therefore that these parties used flat abrasives throughout their processes (and that therefore no such books existed, as 100% of books have been fully digitized)?

Do you have any proof that they did not exist, beyond that you have not seen them?

Do you have any proof of what grinders state either way besides the aforementioned one German grinders' textbook which clearly states they do?

Is the absence of immediate proof equal to immediate proof of absence?

What is (or was) today's financially-transparent goal for the 1834 textbook authors, to ensure a victory in a pub debate 181 years later?

If one would like to understand why razor companies such as Wacker Böker etc will not "answer letters", it is because of these sorts of thought processes - they do not feel they will be given any respect for their position as historical producer if anything they had to say did not agree with the local collective's self-determined fact, and they will instead have their integrity questioned for financial motive, when the brand / industry long term is always of their paramount importance.