Unless there is hard evidence that can be produced to prove the point, it's all just so much talk. I've read a bunch of words, haven't seen one piece of documentation. So speaking of Razor's...how about Occam's Razor, you know the simplest explanation is usually the correct answer?

Proposition #1 - the Spanish made razors, they had a steel industry, one of the razor's was called a Filarmonica made by a guy named Jose.

Proposition #2 - they were all made by Germans either in Spain, or shipped to Spain. Why? Some old guys said so.

What is the most likely explanation? They were made in Spain by a guy named Jose. What's my proof? There are ten's of thousands of razors and packages that say so.

Does this make this the absolute correct explanation? I don't know.

Does it make it the most likely explanation?

Yes, as far as I'm concerned, and any other reasonable person, it does, barring documented evidence to say otherwise.

Until I see some documented evidence, I'm not going to go around like some conspiracy theorist telling people strange stories...if I recall a motto from one of the American States, I believe it's phrased this way. Forgive this Canadian if I get it wrong:

"I'm from Missouri, show me???"